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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 01:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Is love natural, or is it somehow created?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

How is it, in the USA, a country with 334 million people, the choice of President comes down to two aged men, one of whom is a liar as well as a criminal, one who appears to be on his way to dementia. Surely a democratic country can put up better?

You'll usually find your answer there.